The relatively high proportion of Jewish slaveholding was a function of the concentration of Jews in cities and towns, not of their descent or religion
https://www.theatlantic.com/magazine/archive/1995/09/slavery-and-the-jews/376462/
Archived
https://web.archive.org/web/20141021145539/https://www.theatlantic.com/magazine/archive/1995/09/slavery-and-the-jews/376462/
In other words Jews owned slaves but not because their Jewish religion or ancestry but only because they tended to live in cities
What if people who lived in cities were more likely to own slaves because Jews are more likely to live in cities?
npub1xc…3kskh
2024-06-15 16:36:56
in reply to nevent1q…udsh
Author Public Key
npub1xcx7l3r8zq8ffyjm6klketmzt003g5fkm9n86kfcm2s7dzyzuupq73kskhSeen on
wss://relay.primal.netPublished at
2024-06-15 16:36:56Event JSON
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