That is a very big question, and requires a big answer. Please see Chapter 10 in the Ethics of Liberty.
“We do not of course mean to imply that all land rent is illegitimate and a form of continuing tribute. On the contrary, there is no reason, in a libertarian society, why a person transforming land may not then rent it out or sell it to someone else; indeed, that is precisely what will occur.
How, then, can we distinguish between feudal rent and legitimate rent between feudal tenancies and legitimate tenancies? Again, we apply our rules for deciding upon the validity of property titles: we look to see if the origin of the land title is criminal, and, in the current case, whether the aggression upon the producers of the land, the peasants, is still continuing.
If we know that these conditions hold, then there is no problem, for the identification of both aggressor and victim is remarkably clear-cut. But if we don't know whether these conditions obtain, then (applying our rule), lacking a clear identifiability of the criminal, we conclude that the land title and the charge of rent is just and legitimate and not feudal.
In practice, since in a feudal situation criminality is both old and continuing, and the peasant-victims are readily identifiable, feudalism is one of the easiest forms of invalid title to detect.”
https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=KpV1kKdn-Ec&list=PLaPzuXM8OSQYDD7YVbzVwWXEKHIBdM0Sb&index=12
BTCapsule 🏴🧡 /
npub1v6…kxk5t
2023-01-02 18:49:05
in reply to nevent1q…2e4h
Author Public Key
npub1v6xwae25wh6etmqw3m6yce9lnk5dnhtqpzk9fhxjfvjsryctjc8q2kxk5tPublished at
2023-01-02 18:49:05Event JSON
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